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I’m just wondering because as I said I’m not a doctor or a scientist.

It just seems odd to call it an exact science, to say that people have different ‘background CDT levels’ and then not be able to account for those levels in comparison to the total level to establish a real reading?
I think the proven science if the fact that a raised CDT level is indicative to increased alcohol consumption. There's a very close relationship between the CDT level and a number of alcohol units consumed. There have been many trials, using people of different sexes, ages and weights. The results were conclusive, raised alcohol = raised CDT.

I do not know, but I would imagine we all have a start position of CDT from 0.0-0.3
So, it would be hard to explain a score of 4.0 and claim abstinence.
 
CDT is an exact science. It is just some people have a higher background level than others. It is one of the most effective measures for assessing alcohol misuse as there are very few other factors involved other than alcohol intake. I don't know who told you to drink lots of water before your medical, it makes absolutely no difference to your CDT levels....
I totally agree BigTom. This article makes for an interesting read as it explains the difference between a true value of CDT and %CDT. https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/carbohydrate-deficient-transferrin
 
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